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Question: What does Immanuel Kant's statement "The right to a person akin to a thing mean!?
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Kant is talking about property here "the right to a person akin to a right to a thing" in simple words mean that your right to a person under your control (son, daughter, servant, slave etc) is similar to your right to a thing you own like a book or a house!.Www@QuestionHome@Com