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Question: Why was John Adams radical!?
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Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:
He wasn't!. He was a conservative and loyal Englishman!.
All through the "colonial period" Englishmen throughout the Empire, in its colonies all over the World, lived under a basic rule of law that included the same structure!.
1) Each had its own legislature elected by the local people!. (But England closed local legislatures and made everyone subject to the one sitting in London, for which colonists had no vote)
2) Each had an executive (Governor) appointed by the King from among the local people!. (But they started sending Governors from England)
3) Courts were also run by local authority (also taken over by London)
They also enjoyed certain basic rights guaranteed by English common law!. Most of what you see in "The Bill of Rights" is actually nothing more than what was customary for Englishmen to expect, and which London had begun to abrogate!.

John Adams demanded nothing more than his customary rights as an Englishman!. He remained loyal to the King until positively convinced England would continue their string of abuses!.
Anyone who would see that as "radical" must take the position that ANYTHING government does, however abusive, is automatically "proper!."
If "might makes right," Adams was a radical!. If not, he was a Conservative!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

You are radical, if you think forward, people don't like that!.Www@QuestionHome@Com