Even with the threat of the women rebelling, the politicians of the time such as John Adams and Thomas Jefferson still refused to include them in politics!. Why was that!?Www@QuestionHome@Com
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Position:Home>History> Why were women excluded from politics even after the revolution?Question: Why were women excluded from politics even after the revolution!? Even with the threat of the women rebelling, the politicians of the time such as John Adams and Thomas Jefferson still refused to include them in politics!. Why was that!?Www@QuestionHome@Com
Best Answer - Chosen by Asker: Now for a historically-based answer: Because women didn't own property and the founding fathers felt that it was unfair for non-property owners be allowed to participate in voting for taxs measures that affected property rights!. Since women couldn't own property they would not have a vested interest in insuring fair taxation laws for those that DID own property!. And there you have it!. If the above genius that claimed that men are idiots was right, then why did men later give women the right to vote!? It certainly wasn't women that passed this Amendment was it!?Www@QuestionHome@Com Women are still discriminated against today!. Compared to men, they make less money and are given fewer promotions!. Not cool! In poorer, underdeveloped countries, women face much worse conditions and in some case aren't even considered to be "people!." So, in short, it seems that the superiority complex that men have had since the beginning of time have followed through!. While women have gained the right to vote, it's still a big deal for them to become more involved in politics!. Think of Hillary Clinton's critics! Men just like to be in charge : PWww@QuestionHome@Com There is no excuse other than male chauvinism!. Thomas Jefferson continued to own slaves after the Revolution!. He was a great writer and speaker but not such a great human being!. Here's a little puzzle for you: It was 72 years after the Revolution that the women's movement was founded!. It took another 72 years before women got the national right to vote (some states had already granted them this right)!.Www@QuestionHome@Com It's a really great question but you have to take it out of the context of an American Phenomenon!. It has occurred through out history!. There have been periods of recognition followed by periods of suppression!. In the early Roman Church there was a woman Bishop in Ireland!. ( At that time Bishops were elected by the Diocese!.) The wife of the founder of Islam was his Mentor and he proclaimed the equality of women yet look how they are treated now!. History has many contributing women yet somehow Men's insecurity tends to push them back down again!. Women tackle problems logically for a long term solution while men tend to resort to bravado for a quick fix!.Www@QuestionHome@Com Women had very few legal rights!. They were basically considered property!.Www@QuestionHome@Com Because they felt women were inferior, and at the time science had "proven" men had larger brains and were smarter!.Www@QuestionHome@Com peoples mindset did not change after the revolution!. Www@QuestionHome@Com because they feared that they me take controlWww@QuestionHome@Com because men are idiots!.!.!. nothing much seems to have changed though!.!.!.!.Www@QuestionHome@Com |