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Question: Treaty of Versailles
Did France tried to continue imposing the Treaty of Versailles on Germany after the second world war!? If they did, then what happened!?Www@QuestionHome@Com


Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:
No!. I think that wiser heads ruled than after WWI and it was realised that humiliation of the conquered after WWII was not the way forward!. The situation was further complicated by fear of communism so it was apparently felt to be in the interests of everyone to build up a bulwark against communist expansion in Germany!.
Hope that helps!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

The treaty of Versailles was signed at the end of WWI!. Horrendous reparations were demanded from Germany, which resulted in inflation, (a suitcase full of Reichmarks for a loaf of bread)!. This resulted indirectly to the rise of the the 3rd!. Reich, persecution of the Jews, (who were blamed for all Germany's misery) and ultimately to Hitler coming to power and WWII!. After WWII there were no such reparations demanded from Germany or Japan!. In fact they were assisted in rebuilding their economies!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

The Treaty of Versailles was for the purpose of officially ending WWI and restricting Germany!. Obviously it became void when Germany went against the treaty and when WWII began!. After WWII, Germany was divided into four occupation zones (American, British, French, Soviet)!. Germany paid reparations to the United Kingdom, France, and the Soviet Union!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

France did not impose any of the conditions laid down in Versailles after WW2, In fact France was in no position to impose anything after its capitulation in the early forties when it effectively became part of the Third Reich!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

No!.Www@QuestionHome@Com