Did Germany ever fully pay the war reparations owed to the Allies of World War I

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Question:

Correct me if I'm wrong (and also answer the question) but Germany was forced, by the Treaty of Versailles, to pay 226 billion Reichsmarks, later reduced to something like 130 billion Reichsmarks, to Britain and France so they could pay back all of their financiers (including the United States)!. However, the only way Germany could pay off Britain and France was to borrow money from the United States which Germany then gave this money to Britain and France who would then pay back the U!.S!. In all wouldn't that leave Germany in debt to the U!.S!.!?

Essentially, everyone owed the U!.S!. and understandably Germany would have halted any debt payments to the U!.S!. after the onset of World War II!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:

They have never fully paid the reparations!. Hitler stopped payments in the early 1930s!. If he hadn't, Germany would have been paying it off until 1984!. It was pretty impossible for Germany to be paying reparations seeings as the Allies (most notably the French, like when they occupied the Ruhr) took over the German industry and then hyper-nflation occurred when the Germans attempted to just print more money! After WWII, it was decided that Germany would pay back the US when it was unified again!. Apparently it will all be paid back to the US by 2010!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

and you really wanna open that can of worms !?!?!?!?
or are you asking so !.!.!. The USA can make the Germans pay so that they ( ie the USA) can pay the Chinese what they owe!?

I think Hitler called a stop to the payments!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

No!.Www@QuestionHome@Com