Question Home

Position:Home>History> Did someone change the meaning of the word "anti-semitism" in the dict


Question: Did someone change the meaning of the word "anti-semitism" in the dictionaries after 1948 "israel"!?
wasn't arabs were semitism until israel came and called them anti-semitismWww@QuestionHome@Com


Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:
Typical really!.But what else do you expect from certain types of people who always want to be the "victim!." Plus,some argue that if you hate Christ you are Anti-Semitic! So,go figure why it's only jews/zionists that shout the loudest!.So,they too are what they hate others to be as they do not recognise Christ as a prophet of God!.I think it's time we all joined in don't you!?
Great question!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

Well, "Semites" refers to the ethnic genus that includes both Jewish and Arabic people!. However, "anti-Semitism" as it is used refers exclusively to discrimination or other ill-feeling towards Jewish people!.

It can be argued however, that with the 1948 establishment of the State of Israel in Palestine, the word has taken on yet other connotations!. "Anti-Semitism" is a label often used to describe "anti-Zionism"-- that is, opposition to the Jewish presence and homeland state in Palestine!. This is sometimes even the case for people who are not expressing hatred or intolerance towards Jews, and even anti-Zionist Jews themselves!Www@QuestionHome@Com

No!.

The term "anti semitism" was coined in the 19th century by a non Jewish anti semite to specifically describe "Jew hatred and/or discrimination"!. This, in spite of the fact that a Semite would include all semitic peoples, including Jews and Arabs!.

It is one of those quirks of language and has been the case since then to refer to Jew hatred as "anti semitism"!. Thus, an Arab who expresses anti semitism can be rightfully described as an "anti Semite" despite being a Semite himself!. This has absolutely nothing to do with Israel at all but with dictionary definitions!.

also, as an aside, partially to respond to what others here claim, the reason why "anti Zionism" is sometimes labeled "anti semitism" is because it IS sometimes anti semitic, i!.e!. its roots are based in classical anti semitism with a "zionist twist"!. For example, if someone makes a reference to the "Zionist controlled media" or the "Zionist controlled US Congress" that is quite similar and interchangeable with saying "Jewish controlled media" and "Jewish Controlled Congress"!.

Look up the "3D" test by Natan Sharansky where he gives a clear definition of what "anti Zionism" can be rightly labeled "anti Semitic"!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

By definition, Semitic people are the Jews, Arabs, and Assyrians/Chaldeans, but the term anti-semitic!.

And here's what Wikipedia has to say about "anti-semitism":

While the term's etymology might suggest that antisemitism is directed against all Semitic peoples, since its creation it has been used exclusively to refer to hostility towards Jews!.Www@QuestionHome@Com