When did persia stop being persia but Iran?

Question: When did persia stop being persia but Iran!?

and did the language change also why did this happen!?Www@QuestionHome@Com

Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:

The language "Persian" is not Farsi, as many think
"New Persian or Persian for short is described linguistically as an Indo-European language!. It is categorised as one of the Modern Iranian languages, along with Kurdish, Baluchi, Pashto, Ossetic and number of other languages!. It is a member of the Western Iranian branch of the Iranian languages, which are themselves a subgroup of the Indo-Iranian (or Indo-Aryan) family of languages!. As such, Persian is distantly related to the vast majority of European languages, including English!.

Over the past three millennia, Persian has developed through three distinct stages of Old, Middle and New!. New Persian is a successor to, and derived directly from Middle Persian, and can be considered as having two phases: classical and modern – although both variants are mutually intelligible[1]!.

The period after the Islamic conquest is described by Iranian scholars as the ‘Two Centuries of Silence’!. There is no inscriptional or textual evidence for New Persian and only very scanty indications for the continuing use of Middle Persian!. However scholars consider it unlikely that Iranians deserted their mother tongue and only cultivated Arabic[2]!. The lack of any literary evidence from this period will certainly have been compounded by the destruction of Iranian libraries by the Mongols under Genghis Khan and his successors – and there may also be other reasons unknown to us[3]!.

The subsequent ‘Persian renaissance’ was marked by the advent of Classical Persian!. This emerged in Khorasan in eastern Iran[4] and so was strongly influenced by Eastern-Iranian linguistic elements[5]!. Arabic also had a major impact: with large numbers of loanwords, increasing palatalisation and also the inclusion of some grammatical elements!. A modified version of Arabic script was adopted and some letter changes were made!. For the purposes of this paper, the most important of these was the use of /F/ for /P/!. As Arabic has no /p/ phoneme, the area of Pārs, the Iranian people who originated there and their language came to be described by natives as ‘Fārs’ and ‘Fārsi’!.

After these linguistic changes, Persian then remained essentially unchanged until the nineteenth century!. At that time, what is now called Modern or Standard Persian developed from the Tehrani vernacular – following the adoption of Tehran as the capital city of Iran by the Qajars in 1787!.

"The Cultural Heritage News Agency of Iran explains why the versions of Persian have at least a strong a claim as those of Arabic to be considered as one language[22]:

“Some mistakenly believe that, in English, the official language of Iran should be called Farsi, while the language spoken in Tajikistan and Afghanistan should be called Dari, and Persian should be utilised to refer to all of them!. However, the difference between the Persian spoken in Iran, Afghanistan, or Tajikistan is not significant or substantial enough to warrant such a distinction and classification!. Consider the following case: an Egyptian and a Qatari engage in conversation in Arabic!. They will encounter a great deal of difficulty in comprehending each other!. Despite this fact, the language used in their conversation is referred to as Arabic !. !. On the other hand, Iranians, Tajiks and Afghans can converse in Persian and easily understand each other!. Why, then, should their dialects be classified separately and referred to by different names!?”
http://www!.cais-soas!.com/CAIS/Languages/!.!.!.

"The name "Persia" until 1935 was the "official" name of Iran in the Western world, but Persian people inside their country since the Sassanid period (226–651 A!.D!.) have called it "Iran" meaning "the land of Aryans"!. The Proto-Iranian term for Iran is reconstructed as *Aryānām (the genitive plural of the word *Arya) and the Avestan equivalent is "Airyanem" (as in Airyanem Vaejah)!.

On 21 March 1935, the ruler of the country, Reza Shah Pahlavi, issued a decree asking foreign delegates to use the term Iran in formal correspondence!. Some believe he made this decision in order to be closer to Germany, by trying to emphasize the Aryan connection between Hitler's idealistic German Aryan race and the Persian Aryan race, given that "Iran" means "land of Aryans", at a time where the German empire was slowly becoming an unstoppable superpower!. Some other believed he changed "Persia" to "Iran" to present a new and modern face of the country in the world!."
http://en!.wikipedia!.org/wiki/Iran_naming!.!.!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

1935 and I'm quite sure they still speak the same language (Persian), although in some areas they speak Kurdish!.Www@QuestionHome@Com