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Question: Please answer these 2 questions!?
If Allied fought for democracy ,why did they attack Iran in WW2!?It sided to no parties of the war!.(They exiled Reza shah 1/ They used Iran's sources with no gratitude or compensations only to help soviet to defeat Germany) 2!.If democracy belongs to winners of the WW2 ,where did "Veto right 'come from!?Www@QuestionHome@Com


Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:
I'm having a VERY hard time understanding what, exactly, your question is!.
The fact that the Germans were there had a lot to do with it!.
Democracy is available to all who are willing to fight for it!.
I don't see a lot of countries paying us for all we spent in fighting their wars for them!. Yes - they became ours too, but when you're fighting together against a common enemy is it politically correct to present a bill at the end of hostilities!?
We didn't even ask Germany and Japan to pay us for rebuilding their countries, much less ask less well off nations for every bullet of ours fired on their behalf!.
What is your QUESTION!? Or are you proselytizing!?Www@QuestionHome@Com

from third world countriesWww@QuestionHome@Com