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Position:Home>History> The treaty of Versailles after world war I ---- Was it effective?Question: The treaty of Versailles after world war I ---- Was it effective!? Do you agree with this
please explain THE TREATY OF VERSAILLES CREATED MORE PROBLEMS THAN IT SOLVED AND LAID THE FOUNDATIONS FOR WORLD WAR II i will be sure to give the person who took the most effort to write it the best answerWww@QuestionHome@Com Best Answer - Chosen by Asker: Rather than the treaty of Versailles creating problems, it was statesmen from Britain and France who created more problems!. Appeasement was a very near sighted policy to follow, with the British under Chamberlain thought their economy was too weak after the depression in the late 20's to even contemplate re-armament (G!.B's war debt was 172% of it's G!.N!.P!(1))) so therefore appeaseing Hitler to avert a second war seemed like a sensible option!.(2) It's also interesting to note that both France and G!.B had colonies that needed protecting, and Italy (A victor in the Great War) felt it had lost prestige becauseof its exclusion from drawing up the treaty!. Therefore Italian expansion into Abyssinia in '36 must have worried them both because it became a conflict of interests!. Britain had the medd!. to worry about (with bases in Malta, Gibralta and the Suez Canal!) and France had Morrocco!. There were also the Japanese pursuing imperialist aims in indo-china!. As much as Hitler's appeals for the Rhineland, Saarland, Sudetenland and the Anschluss with Austria may have been 'genuine' grievances, they could have been checked by a joint stance between the two countries!. (Hitler was in fact intent on reaching an agreement with G!.B hoping to get her to join the anti-comitern pact(3))) So to answer the question, yes the treaty did cause complications, but it should not be viewed as the single factor which started the war! (for arguments sake, the second world war could be classified as having started in 1936 when japan invaded china!) It is also important to understand that the russians in the Ribbentrop-Molotov pact agreed to pillage the other half of poland and help the Germans in the Balkan states!. Therefore, to sum up, with mabye a stronger influence over Germany,WWII 'could' have been avoided, however the foundations werelaid with the signing of the Treaty of Versailles, as it paved the way for the expanse of German nationalism!.Www@QuestionHome@Com Ok if it had been effective their would of been no ww2 but then Hitler did break every term on this treaty!.Most of the reason hitler came to power thus ending in ww2 was because of the problem the treaty cause germans were outraged that the military was cut in to only 1 boat no subs and 1000 men and no planes making germany weak also they didnt like being to blame !.Germans blamed the keiser at the time and germany their for became dicratic(soz if i spelt it wrong)and the goverment had many parties which couldnt agree(porportional representation)this also made germany weak and one of the reasons hitler came to power!. So to some extent the treaty of versailes was to blame for ww2 but only to an extend a mad man like Hitler didnt help the situation muchWww@QuestionHome@Com I do not agree at all with the quote, it is an example of someone simplifying history and using one of Hitler's excuses for his aggressive and expansionist policies which did cause WW2!. You might as well blame the Congress of Vienna 100 years earlier which legitimised the big power structure of Europe!. I suggest you read 'Paris 1919' by Margaret Macmillan a prize-winning book about the Treaty and its aftermath which places it in the appropriate political and historical context of the time and does not rewite it to accord with assumptions based on hindsight!. Published by Random House, it should be available at a good library or bookstore!.Www@QuestionHome@Com effective in starting WWII!. Forced them to pay unfair war debts, which destroyed the german economy!. Compete betrayal, they couldve kept fighting for monthsWww@QuestionHome@Com |