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From Shmoop Lit on Macbeth

The play is thought to have been written in the later part of 1606, three years after James I, the first Stuart king, took up the crown of England!. James I was the son of Mary, Queen of Scots (cousin to Elizabeth I) and this less-than-direct connection meant that James was eager to assert any legitimacy he could over his right to the English throne (even though he was a Scot)!.

-- Inclusion of Banquo and Fleance
-- Inclusion of dark artsWww@QuestionHome@Com

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Oooh! an intelligent question about the play!
Okay, enough of my fake astonishment, down to business!. First off, you have to know the political climate that preceded James' assention to the throne of England along with the throne of Scotland!. There were quite a few scandals surrounding his father and step-father, so much so that his mother, Mary Stuart (a!.k!.a!. Mary Queen of Scots) was eventually implecated in the death of his father and beheaded!. Really interesting stuff!. So anyway, there had been a lot of discussion about what might happen were another *gasp* Catholic to become the english soverin!. It was widely rumored that the supporters of the new king had supported the unrest and sometimes outright rebellion against Elizabeth!. Remember Guy Fawkes and the Gunpowder Plot!? It's still celebrated in a children's rhyme and by fireworks and parades and effigys on the 5th of November!. I would say that you could actually liken it to some of the rumor mongering going on in the U!.S!. about Obama, (that he's muslim, and all the other stupid questions I've seen out there for the past few months)!.
Basically it was a way for the Kings Men to make money on the whole thing and capitalize on the fact that the king was not an English subject at his birth, but a Scottish prince!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

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