Is their a gender gap, philosophically speaking?

Question:Evolutionarily speaking, man's mind desires innately to dominate. Consequently, when this does not happen...and especially when it does...man is confronted with the prospect of questioning that which is simply assumed to BE.

Women, on the other hand, are evolutionarily programmed to deal with the situations around them as best as possible in order to nurture the next generation of humanity. They are to preoccupied with the important stuff to waste time thinking about philosophy. Generally speaking, they have no use for it.

With very few exceptions, this standard persists (for obvious reasons) in our modern society to this very day.

Best Answer - Chosen by Asker: Evolutionarily speaking, man's mind desires innately to dominate. Consequently, when this does not happen...and especially when it does...man is confronted with the prospect of questioning that which is simply assumed to BE.

Women, on the other hand, are evolutionarily programmed to deal with the situations around them as best as possible in order to nurture the next generation of humanity. They are to preoccupied with the important stuff to waste time thinking about philosophy. Generally speaking, they have no use for it.

With very few exceptions, this standard persists (for obvious reasons) in our modern society to this very day.

The feminist philosophers would say that there is, today, but that there does not need to be. Catherine MacKinnon once put it quite clearly - she said that traditionally, it is argued that initially there was difference between the genders. Then a division was created upon it, and eventually that led to the dominance that characterises the gender gap today. This, however, assumes that while dominance may be rational or irrational, and division justified, a difference initially just -is- .

She proposes, therefore, to restructure this line of thinking and think about it the opposite way around: Initially, dominance was instituted, presumably through force. This led to a division, and to justify this division, difference was 'invented'. So really there is no difference as we think of it generally - but it is just created to justify an otherwise unfair system in society.

Hope that helps!