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Question: What was the difference between slavery in Brazil vs!.America!?
I know the obvious difference ( one was in Brazil one was in America) but, why is it Brazil's descendants (and all of Latin Americas for that matter) are so much more racially mixed than America!? Slavery ended in Brazil in 1888 that's like 18 years after america but, yet there is not as much racism!. Did the Spanish not have as many restrictions/bans on interracial marriages!? Did the Spanish not care as much!? How do Brazilians feel about this today!?Www@QuestionHome@Com


Best Answer - Chosen by Asker:
Well the obvious answer is that the Spanish were not white!.!.!. but really the spanish and the local populace and slaves in general had been interbreeding for many generations prior to 1888!. This sort of thing just did not occure with whites (much anyway) because they did not consider their slaves fully human!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

Brazilians are not Spanish's or hispanics!. Brazilians may be all, except hispanics!.

Brazil was settled by Portugal, and we speak portuguese!.

Other immigrants from Europe came later: germans, italians, polishes, russians, croatians, greeks and many Jewish, arabs and a lot of japanese and koreans!.

Many of these was mixed with the natives, blacks and portugueses!. But, many of these don't like marriages with other ethnic groups!.

Not all (less than half population) was mixed with blacks!.Www@QuestionHome@Com

America, during the colonial era, used African Americans as slaves mostly because the British Government felt that since they were unsophisticated and different, they could force these innocent people into back-braking work!. Www@QuestionHome@Com