Did the Britons and other Celts of Britain back in the 11th and 12th centuries t

Question:

Did the Britons and other Celts of Britain back in the 11th and 12th centuries take Anglo-Saxon surnames?

When the Normans created surnames in Britain, did the Britons and other Celts take Anglo-Saxon surnames? I'm trying to guess whether my ancestors were Anglo-Saxon or Britons.

Best Answer - Chosen by Asker: First of all the Normans are (were) not Anglo-Saxon. The Anglo, Saxon, and Jute invasions predate the Norman invasion by approximately 500 years. The term "Anglo-Saxon" denotes a Germanic heritage, while the Normans were Vikings who settled in what is Northern France today. The Normans spoke "French", and when they invaded England, their language greatly influenced the English we speak today. In fact 85% of English vocabulary comes to us from the ??French?? speaking Normans.

Concerning your question about the Celts; the reality is that when the Germanic tribes invaded what is England today, they conducted genocide on the native Celts and almost totally decimated their populations. Only a few Celtic communities survived the slaughter in what we call Cornwall. All the others were either killed or escaped to Wales or Brittany (western France). In fact this is the reason why the languages of Welsh and Briton are so similar, while the "original" English only adopted 5 Celtic words.

Those who are ethnically English today are not as much Celt as much as they are Germanic, Scandinavian, and French. Or in other words: there weren't Celts in Britain in the 11th, and 12th centuries, or at most very few (excluding Wales, Cornwall, and Scotland).

Although the invading Normans did hire Briton mercenaries to help in the invasion of England, and many of these Briton settled in England and became land owners. Something like 10-20% on the Norman lords were Briton. They likely took Norman names.

Note: Could Beowulf-Boy give some kind of reference to his point. I am now very curious. I understand that in Great Britain the way the history is taught in schools is in-line with what Beowulf-Boy has written. My sense of it is that this is an Anglo-Saxon denial of there genocide, like how the Turks are refusing to admit their wrong doing with the Armenians. I understand it is only in England where this side of the story is told. Please reply.